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What is Agha Sistanti's edict (fatwa) about holding azadari public gatherings (majalis) and processions (juloos) during Moharram in 2020, keeping in mind the current pandemic and the risks associated with large gatherings?
Please refer to the following statement:
Is it true that looking at one's wife's private parts is makruh? If so, what is the basis for this? I understand modesty outside of marriage, but why would there be an encouragement of modesty during marriage. Why would Islam encourage sexual intercourse but encourage modesty in marriage? I feel this is especially relevant today when society is filled with immodesty and shame outside of one's marital life.
Islamic legislations take into account two aspects, the first is setting the limits of actions in terms of what is lawful and what is unlawful, and the second aspect is the perfecting of actions. Sexual relationships outside of marriage is unlawful, and between a husband and a wife, it is lawful with certain limitations where intercourse during the wife’s menstrual cycle is not permitted, as well as anal sex without the permission of the wife. As for the aspect of perfection, as both humans and animals need food and sex, what distinguishes a human from an animal are the ethics and manners that beautify their actions on the level of eating and drinking and on the level of sexual intercourse. Hence, there is an aspect that goes beyond the bodily need, which the Holy Quran describes as comfort and affection, which entails a kind and respectable treatment of the partner’s body. Although Islam does not forbid partners from enjoying each other’s, however certain acts like looking inside the wife’s private parts are considered detestable (makrooh), as some narrations by the Ahlulbayt (pbut) suggest that it may result in the child to be blind.
If I have invested my savings in stocks before my khums date is due, do I have to pay khums on the invested money I have put in stocks as my principal?
If you have not paid the Khums on the principal amount, you must do immediately as investment money is subject to Khums before it can be invested.
If a company makes income from interest, can I still invest in it even though the company is based mostly on lawful transactions, and what are the conditions?
It is permissible to invest in companies that are not based solely on unlawful transactions, such as companies that manufacture alcohol and pork. The money received from such companies is unlawful to dispose of without referring to the jurist (marja'). But if a company is not fully based on unlawful transactions, rather some of its transactions are lawful and others are not, for example, Costco or Target where most of their transactions are lawful except for a small portion that deals with alcohol and pork, then it is permissible to invest with such companies, however, the following must be noted:
1) If it is possible to stipulate in the investment agreement that the money is not to be used in the unlawful portion of the investment such as alcohol, then one must stipulate this condition, and money received as profit is permissible.
2) If it is not possible to stipulate the aforementioned condition, then there are two cases:
a- if the percentage of the unlawful portion can be identified, one must separate it and refer in its disposal to the jurist (marja’).
b- if the percentage of the unlawful portion cannot be identified, then one must estimate it to a number that is close enough to the actual, and then settle it with the jurist (marja’).
Settling the amount with the jurist (majra’) means that the jurist may require giving the amount as a charity to the poor, or disposing it on a matter that he specifies, or requesting handing it over to him.
Are a women's clothes also considered her adornment?
If the clothes are regarded as an ornament (zeenah) by the common view, then they must be concealed in front of a non-Mahram.
There has been a video circulating lately on the Eid Ghadeer. This nasheed uses many music and drum sounds. Although it doesn’t seem lahwi, the music might resemble the music used in general haram music videos.
In case of doubt is it permissible to listen to it?
If you are not sure whether the music falls under the category of unlawful music, it is permissible to listen to it, however, it is better to avoid.
1. Is it permissible for women to indulge in politics and run for head of a department for example?
2. According to shariah law can a women lead a country as a president? Is it eligible?
Taking a position in managing the affairs of people in a secular government is permissible for both men and women provided that they do not commit injustice or any other unlawful acts
Mahr to the wife was a ring.
The ring was paid for by the wife (charged to her credit card)
The husband divorced the wife a few months later
The issue of mahr was not resolved, the husband did not pay off the mahr but is paying on the credit card in installments. This will take over 10 years to pay off at the rate that he is paying.
The wife wants the issue of mahr resolved and has requested that the husband pay the mahr off in full, but he has not done so and is ignoring this unresolved matter.
Is the talaq still valid even though the issue of mahr has not been resolved and at this point the wife is the one that paid for her own mahr?
The divorce (talaq) is valid, however, the husband remains indebted to the wife until he pays off the dowry (Mahr) in full.
Husband and wife both agreed on nikah day that neither one can do a verbal talaq but that the following must be done before divorce:
Speak to Mulana
Trial Separation (one year)
After just a few months the husband did a talaq over the phone with two male witnesses and did not do any type of marriage counseling or mediation from anyone. The wife was very much against the divorce. The Maulana that performed their nikah intervened and requested that the husband meet with him, but the husband refused and did the talaq on his own over the phone with his two witnesses and then emailed the wife and told her that she has been divorced.
Is this talaq still valid even though they both agreed on relinquishing their rights to a verbal talaq? He also did not do the talaq in person with his two witnesses, he did it over the phone with them, does this pose an issue?
Also, what issues does this pose that the husband did not do any type of counseling or mediation and follow what they both verbally agreed to do and went straight into divorce?
The husband's reasons were minor incompatibilities, nothing major in their marriage that would have warranted a divorce. He did this only after a few months of marriage, they had not even reached one year of marriage when he did the talaq.
The divorce is a right given to the husband, if he chooses to use it, he can, although it is very detestable (makrooh). As far as divorcing while the witnesses are not both present in front of the person who is reciting the divorce, it is invalid based on obligatory precaution. Therefore, you should reach out to him if you can and explain that to him, and have him reach out to us and we are willing to provide over the phone advice. May Allah grant you both success in saving your marriage and guide you to that which is best.
If a person was unaware of the rule of saying salawat in tashahhud and made salat many years in this manner what is their obligation in regard to their past prayers? Do they need to make qadha or not?
If the person did not know the ruling and was not negligent in learning it, then he does not have to perform Qada’.
- make up prayers